Vista I will not be buying

  • Thread starter Thread starter GregRo
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Alias said:
The only people who will be inconvenienced are paying customers. The real
pirates that steal for a living will not, as usual, be affected.

Why does this sound like the old gun control argument?

eg crooks dont buy guns from legit stores but get them anyway and
continue to use them.
A law abiding citizen has to jump through many hoops to get a gun for
his hobby tho.
 
Why does this sound like the old gun control argument?

eg crooks dont buy guns from legit stores but get them anyway and
continue to use them.
A law abiding citizen has to jump through many hoops to get a gun for
his hobby tho.

Funny, I bought a couple rifles and only had to complete a simple form,
wait about 6 minutes, and was able to walk out the door with it - but, I
also don't have anything in my background that would limit me from
purchasing a gun legally.
 
Actually, I see the difference, but I disagree that there is a "real"
difference. I don't see any "real" difference between two kids making
copies of CD's and giving the copy to the other and a pirate making a
copy and selling it to anyone. In both cases there was an unpaid for
copy entering the market.

The two kids making copies of CD's and giving the copy to the other
could be an example of legally permissible fair use. For example, the second
copy could be for a legitimate research purpose or for nonprofit educational
purposes.

It's exactly because it is hard to tell the real difference between
these two cases that it's impossible for an automated mechanism to prevent
only illegal copying.
But I do understand your position, I just don't see it in "degrees" of
being legal or not - making a copy for a friend is just as much illegal
as is selling a copy.

If you are making a copy for a friend to use for a nonprofit research
purpose, it's not illegal. There are no degrees of legal or not, fair use is
legal, period.
If the software blocks it, more power to it, as
long as the software doesn't keep me from playing while doing so
according to the sellers rules. Software won't prevent it, as others
have mentioned, it will just make it harder for the "casual" thief to do
it, which means that less people will become thieves.

So it is now your position that it the software will block some legal
activity and that this is perfectly fine with you? That is not the position
you took previously.

DS
 
Leythos said:
Looks like you have a problem with any company making LOTS of money,
no wonder you an Kurt get along soooo well.

LOL! And you have no problem seeing companies suckering people to make
there money.
They can only make money if customers support them.

With trade organizations like the RIAA, MPAA, and the BSA, they act like
trusts giving consumers little alternative than buying their BS. If we
had a government that wasn't bought and paid for by these colluding
trusts, and truely look out for the consumers welfare, there'd be laws
that regulated these 21st Century Trusts!

I seem to remember that competition was supposed to regulate the abuses
of consumers by businesses, but these colluding trusts, have broken the
check and balance of competitions protection of consumers.

--
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Kurt
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"Trustworthy Computing" is only another example of an Oxymoron!
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No, I just know your position on the topic, as well as Alias's and you
know mine, so, since we're not going to change our positions, there was
nothing in your post that was new or different except the above - so it
was the only part that needed addressed.

What's the point in continuing on about something that isn't changing.

I think there's a very real chance that if you understood the issue,
your opinion would change significantly. I may not be right, but at least
there's hope.

The key points that you don't seem to understand are:

1) Copyright law contains powerful exceptions that grant quite a few
rights to the general public.

2) Copyright holders would love the power to restrict these rights, but
the copyright law doesn't provide it to them.

3) DRM technologies do not enforce copyright laws, they enforce whatever
policies the content provider sets. They do not care if there is any legal
authority for the policy or not.

4) Copyright holders see DRM technologies as the way to get *new* rights
that they do not currently have. They want technically what they cannot get
legally.

5) Commercial piracy is the excuse used to justify forcing the
technology on people. But the law already provides solutions to these types
of problems.

The fact that you would make an argument as irrelevent as "people who
aren't doing anything illegal will have nothing to worry about" proves that
you don't even understand what any of the issues are. It would be the
gravest pessimism to believe that your opinions wouldn't change at all, even
if you had a clue what you're talking about.

You may have that low an opinion of yourself, but my opinion of you
hasn't sunk that much yet.

DS
 
That's not what he's saying. What he's saying is that he trusts
himself
more than he trusts his OS vendor. It's a question of who should have
the keys to his computer, him or Microsoft. He chooses himself. I
would too.

DS

Pitiful arguments for and against. If you are against copying - then
just don't do it! If you are for copying - then think outside the box
and buy a scan converter and split your audio out - sending that to a
standalone VCR/DVD recorder unit for about $129.00 (US) and shut up.

The folks who own the copyrights think folks are not smart enough to
realize that you can record things withou a computer - and most of these
replies talking about invasion of privacy - lack or respect - etc. just
need to learn that nothing can be protected from copying if you think
outside the box.

cya!
 
GregRo said:
I apologize for the rant.

http://snipurl.com/hbl7

I have made my decision

Vista I will not be buying.

No one is not going to tell me. I can't have access to a part of the
computer or the hard drive. Imagine if a virus, spyware or adaware
got into that protected area and a virus program could not clean it.

I'm Sticking with xp & windows 98se forever.

If I have to get a new computer it will be either mac or linux system.

Greg Ro

Like it or not, Microsoft will have a way to make you switch over
Thats just my opinion
 
David said:
Over time, the effort to circumvent the technology will become
greater and greater. At some point, individuals working alone won't
be able to do it. Copyright holders will have their de facto
elimination of fair use.


Individuals will have to totally reinvent the wheel themselves,
since the law prohibits the manufacture, import, offer to the public,
or provision of any technology, product, service, device, or
component that circumvents a technological measure that controls
access to a copyrighted work.
Most current schemes have been primitive. Cooperation from the OS
and hardware would make such schemes much more sophisticated. Unless
the individual does all the work by himself, there will be an illegal
link in the chain somewhere.

That will teach people not to buy things that are copy-protected. I
know I won't buy anything in the future that is.

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Hopefully, people will become smarter and insist that Vista not be on their
new computer. With all this you are guilty of piracy until you prove
differently twice crap has made me decide that the next computer I buy will
be a MAC.

Alias


I hope apple does not start this. There already are mad(Maybe)
because the new version of apple os can be installed on Intel system
with a tweak.

The reason I said maybe they are mad. Maybe that is what apple wanted
to have an excuse to come into the software market and compete against
Microsoft.


Greg Ro




Greg R
 
David said:
Because ownership of a physical medium does not imply an unlimited
license to the contents of that medium. The retailer can only sell
you the rights he has, and he doesn't have all of the rights to the
data on the medium.

The retailer owned the product, and so do I. After that copyright law
applies. And part of that is "fair use." After that, then the
shrink-wrap license. The shrink-wrap license doesn't trump copyright
law.
Yes, you do acquire fair use rights when you buy something.



Right, that applies to anything you buy. You acquire the physical
object, but if the person who sold it to you was under restrictions
as to what they could do with it, you may inherit those restrictions
as well. This is most common with transactions involving land and
works containing embedded intellectual property, but it can happen in
principle in any transaction.

And the right of first sale would give me the right to use my copy of
copyrighted material.

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"Trustworthy Computing" is only another example of an Oxymoron!
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Greg said:
They are selling game made for 98 as well as xp.
For 9.99 at walmart
(Read some of those are shareware but most are not)

Greg R

-
-
-

Greg Ro Wrote:-
-
Like it or not, Microsoft will have a way to make you switch over.
Thats just my opinion.-

What are they going to do to make you turn off xp? I don't think
they
could legally do that and then even said if xp activation is no
longer
supported they would have a patch.

I would like to see them try to force Mac, Linux users to use windows
Vista.

I could use Forte Agent on a Linux system using winE

Greg Ro-

I think you misunderstood my statement. What I meant when I said that
is they will make all their new programs only work under Vista. A
perfect comparison would be like 98 and XP. Sure you can run 98 but
most of the programs or games out there are based on XP, the newest
OS.
I am not saying that they will deactivate XP. All I am saying is that
people will still use XP, however, don't blame Microsoft if they
continue and continue to move away from XP in favor of Vista. Hope
that
make things clearer. :eek:-


You are still NOT getting my point. All I am SAYING is that Microsoft
will support Vista more than XP once they release it. I did not ever in
my post say that XP will dissappear once Vista is released. I am saying
that Microsoft will most likely favor Vista more because it is the
NEWER operating system. So stop correcting me.
 
Well if it is a contract then it cannot rewrite the law. The is case law
to that affect at the appellate level.

Copyright law grants a copyright holder certain rights with certain
exceptions. You don't need to rewrite the law in order to grant the
copyright holder additional rights. See, for example ProCD v. Zeidenberg.

DS
 
David said:
Copyright law grants a copyright holder certain rights with certain
exceptions. You don't need to rewrite the law in order to grant the
copyright holder additional rights. See, for example ProCD v.
Zeidenberg.
DS

1.) ProCD v. Zeidenberg is only overriding precedent for courts in the
7th Circuit Court. Any appellate court in the US can decide to ignore
this ruling as precedent, including the Supreme Court.

2.) ProCD v. Zeidenberg wasn't about copyrighted software at all, it
was about the commercial repackaging & redistribution of computer
database material that isn't covered by copyright law.

"ProCD, the plaintiff, has compiled information from more than 3,000
telephone directories into a computer database. We may assume that this
database cannot be copyrighted, although it is more complex, contains
more information (nine-digit zip codes and census industrial codes), is
organized differently, and therefore is more original than the single
alphabetical directory at issue in Feist Publications, Inc. v. Rural
Telephone Service Co., 499 U.S. 340 (1991)." -
http://www.law.emory.edu/7circuit/june96/96-1139.html

3.) Shrink-wrap licenses can be objectionable on the same grounds as
contracts in general. Unconscionable or violate a rule of positive law.

"Shrinkwrap licenses are enforceable unless their terms are
objectionable on grounds applicable to contracts in general (for
example, if they violate a rule of positive law, or if they are
unconscionable)." -
http://www.law.emory.edu/7circuit/june96/96-1139.html

4.) The court seemed to suggest that copyright law may make "licenses"
different than a true contract, but it was not relevant to the ProCD
case, so that would have to wait the proper case.

"Whether there are legal differences between "contracts" and "licenses"
(which may matter under the copyright doctrine of first sale) is a
subject for another day." -
http://www.law.emory.edu/7circuit/june96/96-1139.html

Nice try, but I have actually read ProCD v. Zeidenberg a long time ago.
Maybe you should try reading it.

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"Produkt-Aktivierung macht frei"
 
David Schwartz wrote:
1.) ProCD v. Zeidenberg is only overriding precedent for courts in the
7th Circuit Court. Any appellate court in the US can decide to ignore
this ruling as precedent, including the Supreme Court.

That is true, however, the ruling makes logical sense. It would be
unlikely to expect a different ruling in another circuit, but I admit it's
possible.
2.) ProCD v. Zeidenberg wasn't about copyrighted software at all, it was
about the commercial repackaging & redistribution of computer database
material that isn't covered by copyright law.

That's the whole point, the issue of shrink wrap agreements and EULAs
has nothing to do with copyright law at all. Did you read the ruling? It was
made perfectly clear that the copyright status of the work was relevent only
to the extent that the provider would have had additional rights under
copyright that are totally independent from those under a EULA or shrink
wrap agreement.

And this makes logical sense.
"ProCD, the plaintiff, has compiled information from more than 3,000
telephone directories into a computer database. We may assume that this
database cannot be copyrighted, although it is more complex, contains more
information (nine-digit zip codes and census industrial codes), is
organized differently, and therefore is more original than the single
alphabetical directory at issue in Feist Publications, Inc. v. Rural
Telephone Service Co., 499 U.S. 340 (1991)." -
http://www.law.emory.edu/7circuit/june96/96-1139.html

The question was whether these agreements can give you rights not found
under copyright, right? Here's the perfect example case because there were
*NO* rights possible under copyright law.
3.) Shrink-wrap licenses can be objectionable on the same grounds as
contracts in general. Unconscionable or violate a rule of positive law.
True.

"Shrinkwrap licenses are enforceable unless their terms are objectionable
on grounds applicable to contracts in general (for example, if they
violate a rule of positive law, or if they are unconscionable)." -
http://www.law.emory.edu/7circuit/june96/96-1139.html

Right, but if copyright gives you right X but not right Y, then a
contract that gives you right Y does not violate copyright. It simply gives
you an additional right. There's nothing in copyright that says you can't
acquire other rights and other ways, and it would lead to lots of totally
absurd results to assume that this is so. Perhaps the only exception would
be if state or local laws tried to give you aditional rights. And even then,
courts rarely hold that copyrights limit them.
4.) The court seemed to suggest that copyright law may make "licenses"
different than a true contract, but it was not relevant to the ProCD case,
so that would have to wait the proper case.

I think it's utterly absurd to argue that a contract can grant an owner
privileges over a non-copyrightable work and for a copyrightable work, where
he should have *additional* rights, he doesn't get the contract rights.
That's crazy, it defies reason, and I defy you to find any cite from any
reputable source that suggests that this makes any kind of sense.
"Whether there are legal differences between "contracts" and "licenses"
(which may matter under the copyright doctrine of first sale) is a subject
for another day." - http://www.law.emory.edu/7circuit/june96/96-1139.html

Nice try, but I have actually read ProCD v. Zeidenberg a long time ago.
Maybe you should try reading it.

You show no evidence of understanding it. It's absurd to argue that work
that cannot possibly be protected by copyright would get greater protections
that one that is protected by copyright. Copyright law only pre-mepts state
and local laws, no US court has ever held that it pre-empts contracts.

DS
 
Just to clarify for people who may not be familiar with some of the
details, the basics of what I'm saying is this:

Suppose you buy some CD. It has a shrink wrap agreement or a
click-through agreement or a EULA or whatever. If the
manufacturer/author/seller sues you for violating the terms of the
agreement, the questions would be whether the agreement is valid. This would
take into account whether you had really agreed to it, whether the agreement
was unconscionable, and legal. But it would have very little to do with
copyright or copyright law.

If you made copies for all your friends, you would likely also be sued
for infringing their copyright. But the copyright claims and the contract
claims would be logically independent. You can violate a EULA or shrink wrap
agreement even if the work cannot be protected by copyright.

The only thing copyright gives you that contracts can't is a right
that's enforceable against an innocent third party. For example, if someone
found a CD on the street, only copyright would limit what they could do with
it, a shrink wrap agreement they never saw, opened, or agreed to in any
meaningful way, could not.

DS
 
David said:
That is true, however, the ruling makes logical sense. It would be
unlikely to expect a different ruling in another circuit, but I admit
it's possible.

See Klocek v. Gateway:

The Court is not persuaded that Kansas or Missouri courts would follow
the Seventh Circuit reasoning in Hill and ProCD. In each case the
Seventh Circuit concluded without support that UCC § 2-207 was
irrelevant because the cases involved only one written form. See ProCD,
86 F.3d at 1452 (citing no authority); Hill, 105 F.3d at 1150 (citing
ProCD). This conclusion is not supported by the statute or by Kansas or
Missouri law. Disputes under § 2-207 often arise in the context of a
"battle of forms," see, e.g., Daitom, Inc. v. Pennwalt Corp., 741 F.2d
1569, 1574 (10th Cir. 1984), but nothing in its language precludes
application in a case which involves only one form. The statute
provides:

Additional terms in acceptance or confirmation.
(1) A definite and seasonable expression of acceptance or a written
confirmation which is sent within a reasonable time operates as an
acceptance even though it states terms additional to or different from
those offered or agreed upon, unless acceptance is expressly made
conditional on assent to the additional or different terms.

(2) The additional terms are to be construed as proposals for addition
to the contract [if the contract is not between merchants]....K.S.A. §
84-2-207; V.A.M.S. § 400.2-207. By its terms, § 2-207 applies to an
acceptance or written confirmation. It states nothing which requires
another form before the provision becomes effective. In fact, the
official comment to the section specifically provides that § § 2-207(1)
and (2) apply "where an agreement has been reached orally ... and is
followed by one or both of the parties sending formal memoranda
embodying the terms so far agreed and adding terms not discussed."
Official Comment 1 of UCC § 2-207. Kansas and Missouri courts have
followed this analysis. See Southwest Engineering Co. v. Martin Tractor
Co., 205 Kan. 684, 695, 473 P.2d 18, 26 (1970) (stating in dicta that §
2-207 applies where open offer is accepted by expression of acceptance
in writing or where oral agreement is later confirmed in writing);
Central Bag Co. v. W. Scott and Co., 647 S.W.2d 828, 830 (Mo. App. 1983)
(§ § 2-207(1) and (2) govern cases where one or both parties send
written confirmation after oral contract). Thus, the Court concludes
that Kansas and Missouri courts would apply § 2-207 to the facts in this
case. Accord Avedon, 126 F.3d at 1283 (parties agree that § 2-207
controls whether arbitration clause in sales confirmation is part of
contract).

In addition, the Seventh Circuit provided no explanation for its
conclusion that "the vendor is the master of the offer." See ProCD, 86
F.3d at 1452 (citing nothing in support of proposition); Hill, 105 F.3d
at 1149 (citing ProCD). In typical consumer transactions, the purchaser
is the offeror, and the vendor is the offeree. See Brown Mach., Div. of
John Brown, Inc. v. Hercules, Inc., 770 S.W.2d 416, 419 (Mo. App. 1989)
(as general rule orders are considered offers to purchase); Rich Prods.
Corp. v. Kemutec Inc., 66 F. Supp. 2d 937, 956 (E.D. Wis. 1999)
(generally price quotation is invitation to make offer and purchase
order is offer). While it is possible for the vendor to be the offeror,
see Brown Machine, 770 S.W.2d at 419 (price quote can amount to offer if
it reasonably appears from quote that assent to quote is all that is
needed to ripen offer into contract), Gateway provides no factual
evidence which would support such a finding in this case. The Court
therefore assumes for purposes of the motion to dismiss that plaintiff
offered to purchase the computer (either in person or through catalog
order) and that Gateway accepted plaintiff's offer (either by completing
the sales transaction in person or by agreeing to ship and/or shipping
the computer to plaintiff). (6) Accord Arizona Retail, 831 F. Supp. at
765 (vendor entered into contract by agreeing to ship goods, or at
latest, by shipping goods). -
http://www.law.unlv.edu/faculty/bam/k2001/klocek.html

There is an example of a court rejecting the reasoning of the ProCD v.
Zeidenberg decision. So what you think unlikely has already happened.

That's the whole point, the issue of shrink wrap agreements and
EULAs has nothing to do with copyright law at all. Did you read the
ruling?

Yes. And boy are you spinning. The court never said that shrink-wrap
licenses had nothing to do with copyright law. You are blatantly lying.
This case didn't involve copyright law at all, as the database material
in question isn't copyrightable!

Again:

"Whether there are legal differences between "contracts" and "licenses"
(which may matter under the copyright doctrine of first sale) is a
subject for another day." -
http://www.law.emory.edu/7circuit/june96/96-1139.html

Had this case actually involved copyright material the judge is
suggesting that there may be a different outcome.
It was made perfectly clear that the copyright status of the
work was relevent only to the extent that the provider would have had
additional rights under copyright that are totally independent from
those under a EULA or shrink wrap agreement.

Really? What is made perfectly clear is that the material in question
was not copyrightable material at all.

"Whether there are legal differences between "contracts" and "licenses"
(which may matter under the copyright doctrine of first sale) is a
subject for another day."

What part of this don't you understand? The judge was clearly
separating out copyright from his decision, since it had absolutely no
bearing on the ProCD case!
And this makes logical sense.

Only if you are a spinmeister for the corporate copyright elite!
The question was whether these agreements can give you rights not
found under copyright, right?

No. Where does it say that? All it says that it is assumed that the
database material is not copyrightable.
Here's the perfect example case because
there were *NO* rights possible under copyright law.

And no limitations under copyright law either.

When it comes to shrink-wrap licenses and actual copyright material,
this decision isn't really precedent at all. This is a precedent for
shrink-wrap licenses in the 7th Circuit that doesn't involve copyrighted
material.
Right, but if copyright gives you right X but not right Y, then a
contract that gives you right Y does not violate copyright. It simply
gives you an additional right. There's nothing in copyright that says
you can't acquire other rights and other ways, and it would lead to
lots of totally absurd results to assume that this is so. Perhaps the
only exception would be if state or local laws tried to give you
aditional rights. And even then, courts rarely hold that copyrights
limit them.

But if the shrink-wrap license tries to take X away, then it is
unconscionable.

By the way, X="fair use"
I think it's utterly absurd to argue that a contract can grant an
owner privileges over a non-copyrightable work and for a
copyrightable work, where he should have *additional* rights, he
doesn't get the contract rights. That's crazy, it defies reason, and
I defy you to find any cite from any reputable source that suggests
that this makes any kind of sense.

See the quote below.
You show no evidence of understanding it.

Really? ROFL!

If you say so, then it must be spin!
It's absurd to argue
that work that cannot possibly be protected by copyright would get
greater protections that one that is protected by copyright.

You seem to forget that not only does Copyright Law enumerates the
rights of Copyright Owners, a great deal of Copyright Law is about
limiting the rights of Copyright Owners. Congress placed those
limitations on Copyright Owners for good reasons, and what would really
be absurd is to believe that a court would rule in favor of a Copyright
Owner rewriting those limitations in a post-sale shrink-wrap license at
the whim of the Copyright Owner, and thus placing Copyright Owners above
the limitations of Copyright Law, above U.S. Congress, and above the
Constitution of the United States, which gave Congress the right to
limit the rights of Copyright Owners in the first place.
Copyright law only pre-mepts state and local laws, no US court has
ever held that it pre-empts contracts.

LOL! Not yet, as no copyright owner has sued an individual for breaking
a EULA where Copyright Law contradicts the contract. The corporate
copyright elite are too scared try. MS has had over 13 years to sue an
individual over it One Computer EULA term, but hasn't even though they
know people have, since there is a very good chance that they would
lose, and they rather have no precedent than risk losing.

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Kurt
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"Trustworthy Computing" is only another example of an Oxymoron!
"Produkt-Aktivierung macht frei"
 
You keep confusing the issue, as ProCD has nothing to do with questions
arising from post-sale shrink-wrap licenses on copyrighted software.
And that is what I'm talking about, copyrighted software and post-sale
shrink-wrap licenses.

Can a post-sale shrink-wrap license grant the Copyright Owner rights
that Congress, by Constitutional right, specifically limited in
Copyright Law, in effect, rewrite the limitations Congress placed on
Copyright Owners exclusive rights in Copyright Law? Yes or No.

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Kurt
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"Trustworthy Computing" is only another example of an Oxymoron!
"Produkt-Aktivierung macht frei"
 
David said:
That is correct, the copyright owner cannot.


Nobody is disagreeing. Fair use and first sale are still
exceptions to the rights granted under copyright law, just as they
say they are. However, they are not exceptions to *other* rights
granted *other* ways. Please just read the law.

Which one? Please quote.
What do you mean? Says the contract.

A contract is not a law unto itself.
It's not my fault you don't understand it.

Actually, it made no sense.

"Those limitations on copyright are needed because copyrights are more
powerful than rights granted under contract because nobody has to agree
to them. As a result, they need sepecial limitations that contracts
don't have."

This doesn't make sense as the limitations on copyright is to balance
the competing claims upon the public interest, and has nothing to do
with copyrights being more powerful than right granted under contracts.

"The limited scope of the copyright holder's statutory monopoly, like
the limited copyright duration required by the Constitution, reflects a
balance of competing claims upon the public interest: Creative work is
to be encouraged and rewarded, but private motivation must ultimately
serve the cause of promoting broad public availability of literature,
music, and the other arts. The immediate effect of our copyright law is
to secure a fair return for an 'author's' creative labor. But the
ultimate aim is, by this incentive, to stimulate artistic creativity for
the general public good. 'The sole interest of the United States and
the primary object in conferring the monopoly,' this Court has said,
'lie in the general benefits derived by the public from the labors of
authors' . . . . When technological change has rendered its literal
terms ambiguous, the Copyright Act must be construed in light of this
basic purpose." - http://laws.findlaw.com/us/422/151.html
Umm, yes it does.

No to me.
Look, suppose the law says you can't have loud parties, but
creates an exception along the lines of "it shall not be a violation
of the law against loud parties if the party is completed before
10PM". I can still pay you $5 to stop your party before 9PM, and if
you take the money and still have the loud party, I can sue you.

LOL! You can sue over just about anything, but that doesn't mean you'll
win.
The law does not create a positive right to have parties before
10PM. The contract doesn't modify or supercede the law in any way.
Again, please *READ* the sections on fair use, first sale, archiving,
and so on. It is perfectly clear that they don't create rights to do
things but *exceptions* to the rights granted under copyright law.

Like I said, it doesn't matter. If a copyright owner cannot use a
shrinkwrap license to redefine "fair use," and the copyright owner
doesn't posssess the exclusive right to my "fair use," then I can fairly
use my copy of copyrighted material.

--
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"Trustworthy Computing" is only another example of an Oxymoron!
"Produkt-Aktivierung macht frei"
 
Nope. You have yet to quote one precedent that specifically states that
"copyright has (almost) no bearing on the contract."
Huh? The database material couldn't be copyrighted under the law, so
Zeidenberg wasn't and couldn't be sued for infringing copyright.

Exactly. And what bearing did that have on the contract? None. Get it
yet?
Huh? Totally stupid analogy. There is a law against murder, it doesn't
matter what weapon you use to do it. There isn't a law that says I don't
have the right to reproduce a copyrighted work for a "fair use."

Huh? You aren't even making sense at all now.

If you own a physical medium, absent laws or contracts to the contrary,
you could do whatever you wanted with that physical medium. If it was a CD
of songs, you could copy them, give them to friends, sell them, and so on.
Two classes of things can take these "rights" away, copyright and contract.

Copyright can limit what you can do even if you don't agree to the
limitations. Because of this power, it also has limits.

Contracts can also limit what you can do. They are limited in that you
must agree to them and they cannot be unconscionable.
LOL! Last defense of a moron, just accuse who your are arguing with of
trolling.

Why are you so resistant to correcting a simple misunderstanding? I
don't get it.

Oh, you are more precise that the Supreme Court. And Now you are gonna
explain how they really meant something else other than what they said!
ROFL!

What? No. They meant what they said as far as it applies to that case
where the only issue was copyright. Under those circumstances, an individual
may reproduce a copyrighted work.

Can I break into your house to use your CD burner to make a copy of my
CD if that copy is fair use? After all, an individual "may reproduce a
copyrighted work for a fair use".

C'mon, you're being totally stupid here. Obviously the court was saying
that copyright doesn't prohibit it but that other things might.
Show us a precedent for the Supreme Court saying that a copyright owner
can obtain the exclusive right to an individual's "fair use" in any other
way.

That doesn't even make sense.
You won't be able to.

Of course, since it makes no sense. What is an "exclusive right to a
fair use"?

Here's a question for you. You buy a CD. Under fair use and first sale,
you have the right to listen to it. Can I refuse to allow you to listen to
it on my CD player? Can I charge you to use my CD player to listen to it?
If it is not an infringement, then you have the right to do it, because if
you didn't, then it would be illegal to do under copyright law, IOW, an
infringement!

No. Drunk driving is not an infringement of copyright. Does it follow
that you have the right to do it? You have the right do it, UNDER COPYRIGHT
LAW. That doesn't mean it can't violate other laws and contracts and that
they cannot prevent you from doing.

The only exception would be state or local laws. This is because
copyright *does* pre-empt state and local laws. But this is not because it
grants rights, it's because Congress specfically designed it that way and
Congress has the power of Federal supremacy. Congress does *not* have the
power to interfere with obligations under contracts. (See Section 10 of the
United State Consitution.)
If I can legally do it, then I have every right under the law to do it.

You can legally stay home. That doesn't mean you wouldn't be violating
an employment contract if you did so. C'mon, this is the kind of idiotic
argument even first month law students are smart enough not to make.
If that is not true, show us one example where something that isn't a
violation of the law, that I don't have the right to do under the law.

Plenty of things are not rights but are also not prohibited. It is not
prohibited to drive below the speed limit, but driving is not a right, it's
a privilege. Forming a corporation is not a right, it's a discretionary
privilege, but it's also not prohibited.

And even if it was a right, contracts can certainly restrict rights. For
example, freedom of association is a fundamental right. So is freedom of
speech. But a contract can limit either of these freedoms and do so
enforceably, so long as it isn't unconscionable.

For example, on fundamental right is freedom of association. Suppose I
sign a contract to provide a local seafood restaurant with 10 pounds of
shrim a day for $8 a pound. What happens to my right not to associate with
that restaurant?

A right one cannot contract to restrict is actually a yoke, because it
limits the voluntary agreements you can make to your detriment.

Of course most rights are in fact rights against governments. But even
then, you can contract with the government to give up rights. For example,
you have a right to a jury trial, but plea bargains (essentially contracts
where you give up this right) have been held to be Consitutional many times.
Says who? You have yet to quote one case or law that says that "Copyright
law only supercedes other state and local laws," and "does not create
positive rights that can't be given away under contract." ProCD certainly
didn't say that, as the material in question wasn't covered under
copyright law.

Yes, ProCD did say that. If copyright law created positive rights,
Zeidenberg would have had them.
Such as?


Even ProCD said that contracts cannot violate rules of positive law. So
get real.

What kind of crap is this?! Of course contracts can't violate rules of
positive law. A contract that says I have to show up at work at 8AM yields
my right to stay home, but doesn't "violate positive law".

This is another argument no first week law school student would make.
It's a silly as "if it's my bat, I can hit you over the head with it".
Do you? Quote the law.

I don't get it. The right to travel has been held to be fundamental in
so many cases I don't even know where to start:

"The right to travel is a part of the `liberty' of which the citizen cannot
be deprived without due process of law under the Fifth Amendment. . . .
Freedom of movement across frontiers in either direction, and inside
frontiers as well, was a part of our heritage. Travel abroad, like travel
within the country, . . . may be as close to the heart of the individual as
the choice of what he eats, or wears, or reads. Freedom of movement is basic
in our scheme of values." - Kent V. Dulles, 357 US 116

See also Korematsu v. United States, which held that citizens can have
their freedom of movement restrictud only on showing of the "gravest
imminent danger". See also Apetheker v. Secretary of State.

The law, of course, is the tenth amendment.
There is no law that gives you the right to stay home when you are
supposed to be working.

The first, ninth, and tenth amendements to the consitution do.
There is a law that gives me the freedom to infringe for my "fair use."

What law would that be? The only one I know of says it's not an
infringement of copyright law.
There is court precedent that specifically states the copyright owner does
not possess the right to my "fair use."

That is correct, under copyright law it is an exception to his exclusive
rights. So, qua copyright holder, he does not have that right.
If you can find a law that says you can decide to work from home, and that
your employer doesn't possess the right to say otherwise while you are in
there employ, then your contract employment contract saying you can't work
from home would be unconscionable under the law.

The first, ninth, and tenth ammendments say that. Freedom of association
means I cannot be compelled to even deal with the employer if I don't want
to. Contracts that restrict fundamental rights are not unconscionable.
Marriage contracts restrict your freedom of association. Leases restrict
your right to be secure in your property.

A contract is only unconscionable if it actually shocks the conscience.

DS
 

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