Slipstreaming SP2 Vs. GPO deployment

[Guest]

MS Windwos 2000 server/AD/XP Clients (if that makes a diff)

I've recently slipstreamed SP2 into my Windows XP unattended install disk,
and everything works fine for new installs. I've also got a GPO in place to
deploy SP2 to our machines that are in the office., and that works fine
(though it's not deployed to all machines yet).

However, when I use said unattended install to set up a machine to join our
AD, the first thing the machine does after joining the domain is install SP2.
I assume the GPO deployment of SP2 takes prescedence over the slipstreamed
version because I could have some transforms defined for the MSI file. Is
there any way for the GPO to "respect" the installation of the slipstreamed
SP2, or do I just need to finish up the GPO deployment and use the
slipstreamed version after that?

Thanks in advance.

 

[Oli Restorick [MVP]]

I hope you don't mind me answering a different question to the one asked
(because I'm not 100% sure of the answer), but have you considered using SUS
(Software Update Services) to deploy SP2? I find this a good solution,
although I know it's not a good fit for everyone.

If you find SUS has limitations for you, bear in mind that its successor
(WUS, or Windows Update Services) has just gone into public beta.

Regards

Oli

 

[george]

Q. Why would a machine that (obviously) already has XP installed react to a
GPO deploying a slipstreamed installation of XP?

Since it already has XP running it will very likely only process the GPO
with the SP2 deployment, because it *doesn't* haved that already.
Deploying a completely new slipstreamed version of XP would not be done
through GPO processing but either through RIS or Sysprep, since the target
machine supposedly doesn't have any OS installed yet.

Makes sense?

hth

George