Nina said:
Why would MS compare the license agreements for 3.0 and 3.1 if they
weren't comparable software?
Because the names were similar but that scope and licensing of the two
products were different. Is that so hard to grasp? Did you even read
the article? By the way, I really should have thanked you for pointing
it out and proving my point for me. I apologize for that lapse in manners.
Why would both versions be named "Windows"?
Why does Microsoft have Windows *Explorer* and Internet *Explorer*,
*Outlook* and *Outlook* Express, Windows *XP* and Office *XP*? No one
ever accused Microsoft of using original, clear and/or distinctive names
for different products.
Noted that you snipped the rest without responding.
Didn't think it was particularly relevant. Is that the same reason you
neglected to quote the portion of the KB Article that clearly stated that:
"However, Windows 3.1 is considered systems software and therefore
follows the same licensing agreement as MS-DOS (that is, you must
purchase one copy of the software for each machine)."
(Mind you, I don't actually consider even Windows 3.1 to be a true
operating system, despite Microsoft's statement/definition, as one first
had to boot into MS-DOS and then execute Windows. It was just a GUI
shell riding on top of the true OS, MS-DOS. I've much the same opinion
of Win9x, although they made the transition a bit more "seamless.")
--
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