Thanks for trying!

  • Thread starter Thread starter Andy
  • Start date Start date
A

Andy

Thanks for your suggestions guys.

Bob Cerelli:

NET USE, to map a shared drive, doesn't work (assuming
this is what you mean by "map manually"). This is true
whether I use \\ComputerName\ShareName or
\\RouterIP\ShareName. But then, I don't think it's the
router's IP I'm interested in. It's a computer behind the
router after all. But I'm not sure exactly how that bit
works anyhow.

For this reason, I don't think editing lmhosts or hosts
will help. Actually, I did try this but no luck.

Bob and Bill:

(If you can't be bothered reading all of this, then could
you please comment on the last point I make at the
bottom?)

The VPN client PC has Norton Firewall installed on it,
and it's connected directly to the Net via a Modem. I
have put the remote router's IP address into the
Norton "trusted list", so it should receive anything from
that IP. I have tried turning off Norton, but it made no
difference.

I also checked that none of the client's network
connections have "Protect my computer ... from the
Internet" enabled in the Advanced Property tab. Which I
*assume* will turn off the Microsoft firewall.

At the VPN server end, whenever my client connects, the
router log gives a message about sending VPN packets to
the correct computer's IP. And all outgoing router ports
are open.

The Firewall rules in the router have the following
incoming "ports" enabled: VPN PTPP (TCP:1723) + VPN L2TP
(UDP:1701) + VPN IPSEC(UDP:500). So I *assume* this will
forward TCP 1723 without me having to do anything else.
And a port scan with Norton shows that port 1723 is open.

So I assume I have perhaps left Microsoft's firewall
switched on somewhere at the VPN server end. It will have
to wait until I can get access to it. If it's not that,
then I guess VPN doesn't work.

Incidentally, I enabled both TCP/IP and IPX/SPX just to
get things going. I assume that file sharing will work
via the VPN. But who knows!

Another confusing thing: if I enable both TCP/IP and
IPX/SPX to my ISP via the modem connection, then IPX/SPX
fails. But when I then connect to the VPN server, it
complains that IPX/SPX cannot be used for connecting more
than once. So has my ISP connection "used up" TCP/IP, so
that the remaining unused IPX/SPX is all that will work?

Thanks, Andy
 
Sorry, it fell off the thread.

Of course, my client machine is connected to my ISP via
my dialup modem. So not directly to the Net as I said.
 
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