Formula

  • Thread starter Thread starter Chris
  • Start date Start date
C

Chris

I'm trying to calculate the % variance for two negative
numbers. For example, my budget is a negative number and
my actual is a negative number. normally I would divide
the two together and minus by 1 to get the %. Does not
seem to work with two negative numbers. Any suggestions?
Thanks
 
Percentage change for negative number is not meaningful
and hence undefined.

For example: if the data increase from -5 to -2, the
change is positive 3. When 3 is divided by the base (-5),
we get -60%, which is a contradiction to the increment of
data.
 
The problem with using ABSOLUTE (ABS) for the base:

If the data increases by 3, from a base of (-5) and if ABS
is used, the % increase is 60%.

Another set of data also increases by 3, but from a base
of (-6). Again, if ABS is used the % increase is 50%.

But (-6) is a smaller base than (-5), intuitively, we
would expect, the % increase should be higher than that of
(-5).
 
I put these values in A1 and B1 and in C1 =B1/A1-1 and back came -2.49%. By
private email, I am sending you a file.

What value do you get?

Not sure where Lee gets the idea that percentages for negative values are
"meaningless". Wonder if he is thinking about Logs.

Bernard
 
Not quite understanding what is not working....I have two negative
dollar values, in Excel, it looks like this:

in cell A1 $(51,673.00)
in cell A2 $(50,384.00)

formula in cell B1 =A1/A2-1

answer is 3% or for you sticklers for accuracy, 2.56%

I'm not quite understanding the problem...could you clarify a little
and I'll give it a shot...

Dave M.
 
Or....aha!! I see in a previous reply that someone else is doing it the
opposite way,

in cell A1 $(51,673.00)
in cell A2 $(50,384.00)

formula in cell B1 =A2/A1-1

and the answer is -2.49%

is that what you meant?

Dave M.
 

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