I had a cell which, using data, then validation, was set up to allow either
0 or 1 as input values. I also wrote a macro that would hide many rows if
you wanted a value of 0. Since I feared that some users would forget to set
it to 0 before hiding the rows (something that is critical), I had the macro
first query the user if he really wanted to choose 0 and hide the rows.
Then, if he chose yes, before hiding the rows, it would set that cell to
zero. The part of the macro that did this was:

Range("MinorityPartnerMode").Select
ActiveCell.Formula = 0

Later, I decided that choices of Yes or No would be better than 1 or 0. So,
I changed the list in data, then validation. And I changed the EXCEL code
to match. However, I forgot to edit the macro. To my surprise, the macro
did not crash, even though 0 is now not an allowed response. This leads me
to conclude that data validation only limits choices typed directly into a
cell and that changing the cell value via macro, somehow, circumvents the
limitation. Is this true (EXCEL 2003)?

Thanks!
Dean

Yes.

--
Regards,
Tom Ogilvy



"Dean" wrote:

> I had a cell which, using data, then validation, was set up to allow either
> 0 or 1 as input values. I also wrote a macro that would hide many rows if
> you wanted a value of 0. Since I feared that some users would forget to set
> it to 0 before hiding the rows (something that is critical), I had the macro
> first query the user if he really wanted to choose 0 and hide the rows.
> Then, if he chose yes, before hiding the rows, it would set that cell to
> zero. The part of the macro that did this was:
>
> Range("MinorityPartnerMode").Select
> ActiveCell.Formula = 0
>
> Later, I decided that choices of Yes or No would be better than 1 or 0. So,
> I changed the list in data, then validation. And I changed the EXCEL code
> to match. However, I forgot to edit the macro. To my surprise, the macro
> did not crash, even though 0 is now not an allowed response. This leads me
> to conclude that data validation only limits choices typed directly into a
> cell and that changing the cell value via macro, somehow, circumvents the
> limitation. Is this true (EXCEL 2003)?
>
> Thanks!
> Dean
>
>
>

Thanks, Tom. Any chance you answer my solver problem? I could even e-mail
you the worksheet.

"Tom Ogilvy" <(E-Mail Removed)> wrote in message
news:BB51E81F-6E52-4FD4-9FD9-(E-Mail Removed)...
> Yes.
>
> --
> Regards,
> Tom Ogilvy
>
>
>
> "Dean" wrote:
>
>> I had a cell which, using data, then validation, was set up to allow
>> either
>> 0 or 1 as input values. I also wrote a macro that would hide many rows
>> if
>> you wanted a value of 0. Since I feared that some users would forget to
>> set
>> it to 0 before hiding the rows (something that is critical), I had the
>> macro
>> first query the user if he really wanted to choose 0 and hide the rows.
>> Then, if he chose yes, before hiding the rows, it would set that cell to
>> zero. The part of the macro that did this was:
>>
>> Range("MinorityPartnerMode").Select
>> ActiveCell.Formula = 0
>>
>> Later, I decided that choices of Yes or No would be better than 1 or 0.
>> So,
>> I changed the list in data, then validation. And I changed the EXCEL
>> code
>> to match. However, I forgot to edit the macro. To my surprise, the
>> macro
>> did not crash, even though 0 is now not an allowed response. This leads
>> me
>> to conclude that data validation only limits choices typed directly into
>> a
>> cell and that changing the cell value via macro, somehow, circumvents the
>> limitation. Is this true (EXCEL 2003)?
>>
>> Thanks!
>> Dean
>>
>>
>>